Why do we need schwas before an L or R? Aren’t they implied?

[trosel]

Take “dial”. Why is it 𐑛𐑲𐑩𐑤 instead of just 𐑛𐑲𐑤?

Is it even possible to pronounce that L without a little schwa before it? If not, why even write the schwa? It seems included with the L inherently, no?

I understand there are non-rhotic accents, but the same question goes for Rs. A schwa before the R is basically included, no?

[Shavian-info]

I've converted this to a discussion since it's not about an error or problem in the Read Lexicon.

The use of 𐑩 before 𐑤 and 𐑮 follows RP pronunciation, as reflected in dictionaries like Cambridge Pronouncing Dictionary and the Oxford English Dictionary. Refer to Spelling Principle 1. The difference is subtle in some cases, but is there.

[trosel]

Thank you, I always forget that discussions exist here now!

It is indeed tricky because other places where there is definitely a schwa “whale”, “kale”, etc do not show a schwa in the IPA. The L seems to include a schwa by default. That is what I am speaking of here

[trosel]

I believe that this video explains at 3:01 https://youtu.be/gtnlGH055TA?t=182

It has to do with "pre-L breaking" vowels.

[Shavian-info]

Yep, and the ReadLex follows the RP approach as recorded in relevant dictionaries. This distinguishes real/reel, phial/file, viol/vile, for example, even though in my own accent they're basically merged.